How can we as Christians eagerly await for him to return if his parousia is a past event? The parousia and resurection (which are both spiritual in nature) must not and can not be past events or else you and I have no part in it. Redemption and Salvation also can not be past events. They are spiritual and not historical or temporal events. If you maintain that resurection is in your future, even at the point of your death, you can not and are not a Preterist!!! That view specifically places the resurrection outside of time, and in the same context as Christ's death and resurection. The Parousia and Resurection are singular events which are not subject to time, and they are also personal in nature.
John 14: 22-23 Judas saith unto him, not Iscariot, Lord, how is it that thou wilt manifest thyself unto us, and not unto the world? Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.
This shows that the Parousia is not subject to the point in time, but of nature. It is about crossing over from the temporal world (present age) to world above (age to come). This is the finish line that Paul sought for when he described running a race. The finish line for Paul could not have been "the destruction of Jerusalem" or "70 AD" but the reward for his faithfulness after his personal death. He saw his own Calvary as the gates to which he was walking toward to finally recieve those things which were promised.
Virgil Vaduva Article: The Ugly Side of Preterism: Self-righteousness and the Politics of Personal Destruction
Soon after, I wrote a series of three columns on Calvinism, discussing the reasons for which I perceive Calvinism to be wrong in light of Preterist theology. I concluded then, as I still believe, that the events of AD 70 had a much more ecumenical effect than initially thought. I have concluded that AD 70 brought about a comprehensive reconciliation between God and the world. (How So?) It is quite clear to me that the general thread of the Scripture revolves around God's furious pursuit of mankind, and His effort to reconcile and redeem the entire creation back to Himself.
It is clear to me that AD70 had a much more comprehensive effect on the world's relationship with God and the world's reconciliation with God. (HOW SO?) Of course, as I have stated several times already, I see a clear difference between salvation and redemption. For example, Christ's sacrifice had been already paid once, for all people. As a result, they all have been redeemed yet not all have been made aware of the reality of redemption. Hebrews 9 makes this clear: ...so Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, will appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him." In the Hebrews' author's mind, Christ had redeemed the world (to put away sin) and will appear a second time to bring salvation to those who eagerly await Him.
Did Christ "put away sin" in 70ad" if that was when he returned? How so when all that occured was the destruction of physical things (Jerusalem, Temple). How can a visible and temporal event like the destruction of Jerusalem, "put away sin"? What was it about this specific event that removed your sin, and removed my sin? Absoletly nothing!!!! "Putting away sin" means my sin and your sin, and that can not be removed, unless you are born again, and are washed clean by the blood of Christ. I am saying that you personally being washed, was not complete in the historical event of the cross. It was complete when you personally believed, and took up your cross and allowed Christ to come into your heart, and allowed him to "make his abode" with you.
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