They would have reigned with Jesus for 1000 years, according to the prophecies in Scripture. And, during this 1000 years, Satan was chained and bound, no longer able to deceive the nations. After these 1000 years, Satan would then "be set free for a 'short' time".
So, if this is all so and if it has all occurred already. If the prophecies were fulfilled in 70 AD, the 1000 year reign of Christ and binding of Satan would have all occurred, then this would have taken us to the year 1070 AD. (fulfillment of the 1000 years taken literally to mean 1000 years)
- Why then is there no accounting of this incredible time in our history?
- Why then is there no record of this period of time where 'sin' did not occur?
- Why is there no account of such time in our history where the signs as given in Matthew 24:29-31 where it states that immediately after the period of tribulation, "the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven"?
- Where is the accounting for the anti-christ that was prophesied would come?
- Why then has Satan been then released for 938 years?
- Do you consider 938 years to be a "short" time?
- Do you deny the existence of Satan and his army deceiving the nations today?
- And, if you don't deny the existence of Satan/of evil and corruption in our world today, then do you call God a liar when He stated that upon Christ return we would be with Christ, that the old would be passed away and we would behold a new heaven and new earth FREE of corruption and FREE of sin?
- How do you explain that in Hebrews it clearly tells us that "it is appointed for a man to die once, but after this the judgment"?
- How do you explain that in Hebrews it also tells us that "Christ was offered ONCE to bear the sins of many" and that upon His second coming the world would experience life without sin and with the fulfillment of true salvation?
- How do you again explain that there is still sin in the world as we know it today?
And, if all was fulfilled by 70 AD, meaning nothing left to fulfill, then what about all those who have died for the cause of Christ since then? All those who are considered martyrs for the cause, the faith, are all their deaths simply in vain? I mean if all was fulfilled, what exactly was the purpose of them going out, being persecuted and laying down their lives for the cause of Christ?
Furthermore, what is the point of any of us preaching the Gospels to anyone? Why should any of us seek to expand the Kingdom of God if all has already been fulfilled and there is no further hope of Christ's return for all of us who came after 70 AD?
In fact, why do you even worry about whether or not we understand your theology if it really matters not, Christ has already returned, all has been fulfilled and there is nothing left for any of us? No blessed hope, assurance, or expectation of His return. No looking forward to the day that satan will be bound and cast into the pit. No looking forward to this new incorruptible heaven and earth where sin no longer abounds but which is the home of righteousness.
I mean if, all these things have come to pass already, if there is already the new heavens and the new earth where all is incorruptible and sin no longer abides, where death has no sting and victory over all evil has been accomplished, whereby we simply kneel at the feet of Christ in worship all the time, free from tears, free from pain, free from struggles, free from trials and tribulation, then does this truly not portray God to be some sort of cruel puppet master to have those of us, who came after 70 AD, after 1070 AD living here on this corruptible earth where sin does abide, where evil does still show its face and where we still have tears, pain, sufferings, trials and tribulations."
Would this all truly not go against the very character of God being loving, forgiving, full of grace and mercy and instead make Him out to be some cruel being watching us struggle or suffer?
http://www.city-data.com/forum/christianity/436516-scriptures-completely-blow-preterism-out-biblical-11.html
