Rusureofit comments on a Hyper-Preterist blog on the issue of Hymenaeus and Philetus. "If Paul in 1st Thess.4:13 is yet looking for the dead to be raised from Hades at some point in the future around AD 70 then how come in 1st Corinthians 15:16 He says: "For if the dead are not raised, then Christ has not been raised either." Hadn't Christ been raised from Hades at that point yet? If so then the dead in Hades must have also been raised. Hence we have the witnesses to attest to that resurrection in Matthew 27:50-53; "50And when Jesus had cried out again in a loud voice, he gave up his spirit. ; 51At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook and the rocks split. 52The tombs broke open and the bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life. 53They came out of the tombs, and after Jesus' resurrection they went into the holy city and appeared to many people."
If Jesus appeared after his resurrection to prove he had been raised from hades wouldn't the other saints that appeared to many be doing the same thing?
I have read that 1 Corinthians was written after 1 Thessalonians but still years before the temple was destroyed. If the dead were raised in AD 70 then how could Paul say "For if the dead are not raised, then Christ has not been raised either." Isn't this past tense? Or did Paul change his mind from the time he wrote 1 Thessalonians until he wrote 1 Corinthians? Or is he talking about a different resurrection? This one has got me stumped......."
planetpreterist.com/news-5559.html#41155
Hyper-Preterist response to this question Parker "The better translation might be "if the dead are not to be raised, then Christ has not been raised" or "if the dead don't raise, then Christ has not been raised." The NT theology is CLEAR that Jesus was the first to rise out of Hades and that the rest of the dead were to get out of Hades much later (at AD 70)."
